Un libro que me pide probar que:
$$\int_0^{\pi}\sin(x)\,dx = 2$$
El uso de la identidad:
$$\sin\left(\frac{\pi}{n}\right) + \sin\left(\frac{2\pi}{n}\right) + \cdots + \sin\left(\frac{n\pi}{n}\right) = \frac{\cos\left(\frac{\pi}{2n}\right)-\cos\left(\frac{(2n+1)\pi}{2n}\right)}{2\sin\left(\frac{\pi}{2n}\right)}$$
Y la famosa $\lim_{x\to0}\frac{\sin(x)}{x} = 1$
Lo que he intentado:
Utilizando el Derecho de Riemann Suma Método:
$$\int_a^{b}\sin(x)\,dx \approx \Delta x\left[f(a + \Delta x) + f(a + 2\,\Delta x) + \cdots + f(b)\right]$$
Tomando $\Delta x = \frac{\pi}{n}$, $a = 0$ y $b = \pi$ tenemos:
$$\int_0^{\pi}\sin(x)\,dx \approx \Delta x\left[f(\Delta x) + f(2\,\Delta x) + \cdots + f\left(\frac{n\pi}{n}\right)\right] = \frac{\pi}{n}\left[\sin\left(\frac{\pi}{n}\right) + \sin\left(\frac{2\pi}{n}\right) + \cdots + \sin\left(\frac{n\pi}{n}\right)\right] = \frac{\pi}{n}\left[\frac{\cos\left(\frac{\pi}{2n}\right)-\cos\left(\frac{(2n+1)\pi}{2n}\right)}{2\sin\left(\frac{\pi}{2n}\right)}\right]$$
Así
$$\int_0^\pi \sin(x)\,dx = \lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{\pi}{n}\frac{\cos\left(\frac{\pi}{2n}\right)-\cos\left(\frac{(2n+1)\pi}{2n}\right)}{2\sin\left(\frac{\pi}{2n}\right)}$$
No veo, sin embargo, cómo probar este límite $=2$