Es la desigualdad $$\Big (1+\frac{1}{k(k+1)}\Big )^k \geq 1+\frac{1}{k+1}$$ is true for all $k \in \mathbb{N}$ ? I am proving this using binomial theorem on the right side but I don't know what to do in the middle since there are many terms and there is an exponent of $k$. Is there a better way to prove this one? Thanks. I think of using $AM \geq GM$ desigualdad, pero no sé cómo aplicarlo.Gracias De Nuevo.