Estoy teniendo problemas para conceptualizar el por qué de la caída de tensión entre dos puntos de un ideal de alambre (es decir, sin resistencia) es $0~V$. Usando la Ley de Ohm, la ecuación es:
$$ V = IR \\ V = I(0~\Omega) \\ V = 0$$
However, conceptually I can't see how there is no change in energy between these two points.
It is my understanding that the electrical field of this circuit produces a force running counterclockwise and parallel to the wire which acts continuously on the electrons as they move through the wire. As such, I expect there to be a change in energy equal to the work.
Voltage drop is the difference in electric potential energy per coulomb, so it should be greater than $0~V$:
$$ \Delta V = \frac{\Delta J}C \\ \Delta J > 0 \\ \, por tanto \Delta V > 0 $$
For example, suppose I have a simple circuit consisting of a $9~V$ battery in series with a $3~k\Omega$ resistor:
If the length from point 4
to point 3
is $5~m$, I would expect the following:
$$ W = F \cdot d \\ W = \Delta E \\ F > 0 \\ d = 5 > 0 \\ \por lo tanto, W > 0 \\ \, por tanto \Delta E > 0$$
Since work is positive for any given charge, the change in energy for any given charge is positive -- therefore the voltage drop must be positive. Yet, according to Ohm's Law it is $0~V$ ya que el alambre tiene insignificante resistencia.
Donde está el fallo en mi lógica?